FAA Part 107 Sample Questions, Answered

The FAA publishes 46 sample questions for the Unmanned Aircraft General (UAG) test, the knowledge test for a Part 107 remote pilot certificate. The document has no answer key. Below is every question with the correct answer and the reason, checked against the regulation text, the FAA's chart figures, and the FAA's own references.

How should you use the FAA sample questions?

The FAA says these questions are representative and "not necessarily actual test questions". The real test has 60 questions. Many sample questions refer to figures in the FAA-CT-8080-2H testing supplement, the same booklet you get at the test center, so keep it open while you work. Each question carries an ACS code, the same kind of code printed on your score report; the test report codes post explains how to read them.

Regulations

Q2. How may a remote pilot operate in Class C airspace? A: with prior authorization from the ATC facility having jurisdiction. §107.41 requires prior ATC authorization for Class B, C, D and Class E surface areas. Monitoring a frequency or calling after launch does not satisfy it.

Q3. Planning to operate within Class C, the remote PIC... C: is required to receive ATC authorization. Same rule. No flight plan or visual observer is required for that.

Q19. You climbed above 600 feet AGL to avoid a manned airplane. To whom must you report the deviation? C: upon request of the FAA. Under §107.21, a pilot who deviates from a rule in an emergency sends a written report only if the Administrator requests one.

Q27. What is required to fly within 30 minutes after official sunset? A: anti-collision lights. That window is civil twilight, and §107.29 requires lighting visible for 3 statute miles. The civil twilight post explains the 30-minute rule.

Q29. Who is responsible for determining the performance of a small unmanned aircraft? A: the remote pilot in command, who is directly responsible for and the final authority on the operation.

Q33. Who must inspect the small UAS to ensure it is in a safe operating condition? A: the remote pilot in command, not the owner or a visual observer.

Q34. When would an owner not be permitted to register a small UA? A: if the owner is under 13. Part 48 says a person at least 13 must register on the owner's behalf.

Q35. When must a small UA be registered? A: civilian small UA over 0.55 pounds must be registered regardless of intended use.

Q37. Who briefs participants about emergency procedures in a commercial operation? C: the remote PIC, who must make sure everyone directly participating knows the emergency procedures before flight.

Q40. When may the pilot reduce light intensity at night? C: when it is in the interest of safety. §107.29 allows dimming but never switching the anti-collision lights off.

Q41. What must the person at the controls do if standard Remote ID fails in flight? A: land as soon as practicable, as Part 89 requires. The Remote ID post covers the rest of the Remote ID rules.

Q42. Where must the serial number be listed for standard Remote ID or a broadcast module? C: on the Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

Q44. A Category 1 operation over people requires an aircraft weighing... A: 0.55 pounds or less, under §107.110.

Q45. Which category must have an FAA airworthiness certificate? A: Category 4, under §107.140. The operations over people post compares all four categories.

Airspace

Q8. (Figure 23, area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C shelf? B: 1,300 feet MSL. The shelf is labeled 41 over 13: ceiling 4,100 MSL, floor 1,300 MSL. Class C altitudes on sectionals are MSL, with the last two zeros dropped.

Q10. (Figure 21) How would you find out if the Devils Lake West MOA is active? A: refer to the chart legend. The FAA's Chart User's Guide says the sectional's MOA tabulation lists altitudes, times of use and the controlling agency. For real-time status, the AIM also suggests asking a flight service station.

Q13. (Figure 26, area 4) What do you need to inspect the tower near Jamestown Regional (JMS)? B: authorization from ATC. The location is inside the dashed magenta Class E surface area around JMS, which needs authorization under §107.41.

Q14. (Figure 20, area 5) How would you "CHECK NOTAMS" for the unmarked balloon? C: get a briefing from an online source such as 1800wxbrief.com.

Q30. (Figure 59, area 2) Do routes VR1667, VR1617, VR1638 and VR1668 present a hazard? B: yes, these are military training routes. The AIM says routes with four-digit numbers have no segment above 1,500 feet AGL, so military jets can be right down at drone altitudes.

Q46. The FAA issued a TFR for the Indianapolis 500. Can your sponsor company fly a drone in it? B: no. The TFR applies to all aircraft, and sponsorship does not exempt you.

Weather

Q1. Characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass? A: turbulence and showery precipitation.

Q38. Characteristics of stable air? B: poor visibility and steady precipitation.

Q39. A low-level temperature inversion with high humidity means... A: smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze or low clouds.

Q4. Effect of high density altitude on propeller efficiency? B: it decreases. The density altitude calculator shows how far a hot day moves the number.

Q25. (Figure 12) Current conditions at Chicago Midway (KMDW)? A: 700 feet overcast, visibility 1 1/2 SM, rain. The report reads 1 1/2SM RA OVC007, and RA without a plus sign is moderate rain, not heavy.

Q26. (Figure 12) Wind at KJFK? A: from 180° true at 4 knots. The report reads 18004KT, and METAR winds are true, not magnetic. The METAR post decodes every group.

Loading and performance

Q7. (Figure 2) What does a 33-pound airplane's structure support in a 30° banked turn at constant altitude? C: about 38 pounds. The load factor at 30° is about 1.154, and 33 × 1.154 ≈ 38. The load factor post explains the chart.

Q20. When may the load factor on the wings increase? B: any time the airplane maneuvers other than straight-and-level flight.

Q21. What causes a stall? C: exceeding the critical angle of attack, at any airspeed.

Q28. Where are the loading instructions that keep the CG within limits? A: the Pilot's Operating Handbook or UAS flight manual.

Operations

Q5. (Figure 22, area 2) Which frequency is the CTAF at Coeur d'Alene? C: 122.8 MHz, the frequency marked with the circled C. 135.075 is the AWOS weather broadcast.

Q9. (Figure 20, area 3) What hazard is about 4 SM southeast of Elizabeth City (ECG)? C: an unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet MSL. The caution box on the chart reads MSL, not AGL.

Q11. The most comprehensive information on an airport is in... A: the Chart Supplement, formerly the Airport/Facility Directory.

Q18. (Figure 26, area 2) An aircraft reports midfield left downwind for runway 13 at Cooperstown. Where is it? A: east. Runway 13 points about 130°. In a left-hand pattern the downwind leg runs opposite, about 310°, with the runway on the pilot's left, so the aircraft is northeast of the runway. East is the closest choice. The traffic pattern post explains the legs.

Q24. (Figure 21) Which airport is at about 47°40'N, 101°26'W? C: Garrison Airport. The latitude and longitude post walks through the tick counting.

Q31. (Figure 26, area 4) What does the line of latitude measure? B: degrees north and south of the equator.

Q6. How should you scan for traffic? A: systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

Q12. Taking risks to impress others is which hazardous attitude? C: macho.

Q16. "Fly first, ask questions later" is which hazardous attitude? C: impulsivity. The decision-making post lists all five attitudes and their antidotes.

Q15. CRM in a small UA operation must be integrated into... B: all phases of the operation.

Q17. A news station's pilot has near misses and two accidents. The fix? C: recognize hazardous attitudes and adopt safety-focused standard operating procedures.

Q22. To prevent the final "link" in the accident chain, use... C: risk management.

Q23. Fatigue can be recognized... B: as being in an impaired state. It is not something experience lets you push through.

Q36. What is true about alcohol in the body? C: even small amounts can affect judgment and decision-making.

Q43. After a preflight under a bright work light, what should you know before a night flight? B: eyes take about 30 minutes to fully adapt to darkness.

Q32. When should you set up scheduled maintenance? A: when the manufacturer does not provide a maintenance schedule.

What this means for the exam

The sample set leans on the same habits the real test rewards: read the chart label exactly, know which rules are absolute (lights at twilight, ATC authorization in controlled airspace) and which depend on a request, and decode weather reports group by group. If you missed a cluster here, the matching ACS codes tell you which handbook element to study next.

The rest of the free FAA study set is listed in the free study materials post.